sci.math Google Group

Re: Clarification of the counterexamples to FLT

anonymous.rubbert...@yahoo.com (A) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 15:56:27 UT

The following post in this thread was made by E. E. Escultura but I do
not see it on Google Groups, only on mathforum.org:
I am not sure why this is (I don't use mathforum.org--are not all
posts there actually made to the Usenet group?) or whether people with
real newsreaders were able to see this post.

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Re: Infinity has no base

pfss...@aol.com — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 15:46:01 UT

On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 01:10:41 -0800 (PST), BURT <macromi...@yahoo.com>
wrote:
Senseless rubbish!

Re: Principle of Relativity

thedraperfam...@gmail.com (PD) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 15:41:20 UT

Doesn't it just SUCK to have your bluff called and to be holding a
pair of threes?

Re: Ten Evidences in favor of my thesis

z...@erkonx.net (ZerkonXXXX) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 15:28:25 UT

Hardly. However, on this matter, to each their own (thesis).

Re: Imagine the pressure you'd feel at the bottom of the Mariana Trench.

jowr.pi.nos...@gmail.com (eric gisse) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 14:53:49 UT

Why wouldn't people think you were being serious, Ralph? You routinely say
very silly things and defend them.

algebra and analysis

p...@grex.org (Graven Water) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 14:46:04 UT

The complex numbers are algebraically complete.
And complex analysis has nice theorems that real analysis doesn't have:
like, if a function is differentiable once, it's differentiable infinitely
many times.
Are those two things related?
Is something similar true for p-adic analysis - does analysis over the

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Re: ? estimating coef of DE

asec...@gmail.com (Cheng Cosine) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 14:44:41 UT

What if the eqn to be estimated is:
1. dy/dt = a*b*y+f -> estimate a and b
does it mean that one needs to have 2 measurements?
2. dy/dt = ( a+b )*y+f -> estimate a and b
does it mean that one needs to have 2 measurements?
Some say that one cannot estimate a product of a*b because the value
of the product

Re: Clarification of the counterexamples to FLT

blockspamfish...@your-mailbox.com (fishfry) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 13:38:34 UT

In article
<531212911.28663.1257562742387 .JavaMail.r...@gallium.mathfor um.org>,
When you teach freshman calculus, do you cover the geometric series?
Doesn't 3/10 + 3/100 + 3/1000 + ... converge to 1/3 without any
reference to the notion of decimals?

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Re: cos(pi/19)

marc.picher...@wanadoo.fr.invalid (AP) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 14:27:14 UT

the fact that 2cos(pi/19)= exp(i pi/19) + exp(-i pi/19),
=sum of two roots of unity
prove only 2*cos(pi/19) is algebraic
so, there exists k in N^* such k*2*cos(pi/19) is algebraic integer
but, why (without calculation) k=1?
thanks

Re: Question on bounded variation functions

dullr...@sprynet.com (David C. Ullrich) — Sat, 07 Nov 2009 14:18:22 UT

On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 01:18:24 -0800 (PST), miki <miki.li...@gmail.com>
wrote:
Yes.
Of course not - the total variation on [a, b-eps] could be finite
for every eps > 0 but tend to infinity as eps -> 0.
If the total variation on [a,b-eps] is _bounded_ for eps > 0
then the total variation on [a,b) is finite.

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